Indian form of government is described as a federation with centralizing tendency. Which among the following provisions of the constitution supports this tendency? 1. A single and flexible constitution 2. Provision of All India Services 3. Appointment of State Governor by the Center. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement 1 correct: Unlike the USA, where it has two sets of constitutions for center and states, India has a single constitution for both states and center. The Indian constitution is also flexible unlike the case of a true federation where it will be rigid. This is a centralizing tendency as states boundaries can be altered by the center. • Statement 2 correct: The candidates selected for All India services were recruited and trained by the center but are to be served in the states, which do not have the capacity to 'remove' them. • Statement 3 correct: The governor having many discretionary powers at the state is appointed by the center. This is one of the major centralizing tendencies.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Population Register (NPR): 1. Only Citizens are included in the NPR. 2. It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR. 3. The data for NPR was first collected in 2010 along with the house-listing phase of Census 2011. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The first phase of the census and collection of details to update the National Population Register (NPR) have been postponed at least till September 2022. • The NPR is a list of “usual residents of the country”. • According to the Home Ministry, a “usual resident of the country” is one who has been residing in a local area for at least the last six months or intends to stay in a particular location for the next six months. • NPR is not a citizenship enumeration drive, as it would record even a foreign national staying in a locality for more than six months. • This makes NPR different from the NRC, which includes only Indian citizens while seeking to identify and exclude non-citizens. Hence statement 1 is not correct. • The NPR is being prepared under provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. • It is mandatory for every “usual resident of India” to register in the NPR. Hence statement 2 is correct. • Only Assam will not be included (as per a notification by the Registrar General of India in August), given the recently completed NRC in that state • NPR will be conducted in conjunction with the house-listing phase, the first phase of the Census, by the Office of Registrar General of India (RGI) for Census 2021. • It is conducted at the local, sub-district, district, state and national levels. The data for NPR was first collected in 2010 along with the house-listing phase of Census 2011. Hence statement 3 is correct. • In 2015, this data was updated by conducting door-to-door surveys.
Consider the following statements: 1. There is no limit to the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution. 2. Only the President can decide whether any matter forms a part of the basic structure of the Constitution Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
In 1973, the Supreme Court ruled in Kesavananda Bharati case that there is a basic structure of the Constitution and nobody—not even the Parliament (through amendment)—can violate the basic structure. The Court did two more things. First, it said that right to property (the disputed issue) was not part of basic structure and therefore could be suitably abridged. Secondly, the Court reserved to itself the right to decide whether various matters are part of the basic structure of the Constitution. This case is perhaps the best example of how judiciary uses its power to interpret the Constitution.
Which of the following are the similarities between Indian Parliamentary System and British Parliamentary System? 1. Supremacy of Parliament 2. Elected head of state 3. Majority party rule Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The features of parliamentary government in India are: • Presence of nominal and real executives; • Majority party rule, • Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, • Membership of the ministers in the legislature, • Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, • Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). There are some differences between the British Parliamentary system and that of India. For example, the Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. Also, the Indian State has an elected head (republic) while the British State has hereditary head (monarchy).
Consider the following functionaries of NITI Aayog: 1. Chairperson 2. Vice-chairperson 3. Special Invitees 4. Chief Executive Officer Which of the above are appointed by the Prime Minister?
The Composition of the NITI Aayog is as follows: o Chairperson: The Prime Minister of India o Governing Council: It comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi andPuducherry) and Lt. Governors of other Union Territories. o Regional Councils: These are formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region. These are formedfor a specified tenure. These are convened by the Prime Minister and comprises of the Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of UnionTerritories in the region. These are chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee. o Special Invitees: Experts, specialists and practitioners with relevant domain knowledge as special invitees nominated by the Prime Minister. o Full-time Organisational Framework: It comprises, in addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson: ✓ Vice-Chairperson: He is appointed by the Prime Minister. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister. ✓ Members: Full-time. They enjoy the rank of a Minister of State. ✓ Part-time Members: Maximum of 2, from leading universities, research organisations and other relevant institutions in an ex-officio capacity. Part-time members would be on a rotation. ✓ Ex-Officio Members: Maximum of 4 members of the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister. ✓ Chief Executive Officer: He is appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. ✓ Secretariat: As deemed necessary.
Indian form of government is described as a federation with centralizing tendency. Which among the following provisions of the constitution supports this tendency? 1. A single and flexible constitution 2. Provision of All India Services 3. Appointment of State Governor by the Center. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• Statement 1 correct: Unlike the USA, where it has two sets of constitutions for center and states, India has a single constitution for both states and center. The Indian constitution is also flexible unlike the case of a true federation where it will be rigid. This is a centralizing tendency as states boundaries can be altered by the center. • Statement 2 correct: The candidates selected for All India services were recruited and trained by the center but are to be served in the states, which do not have the capacity to 'remove' them. • Statement 3 correct: The governor having many discretionary powers at the state is appointed by the center. This is one of the major centralizing tendencies.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Population Register (NPR): 1. Only Citizens are included in the NPR. 2. It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR. 3. The data for NPR was first collected in 2010 along with the house-listing phase of Census 2011. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• The first phase of the census and collection of details to update the National Population Register (NPR) have been postponed at least till September 2022. • The NPR is a list of “usual residents of the country”. • According to the Home Ministry, a “usual resident of the country” is one who has been residing in a local area for at least the last six months or intends to stay in a particular location for the next six months. • NPR is not a citizenship enumeration drive, as it would record even a foreign national staying in a locality for more than six months. • This makes NPR different from the NRC, which includes only Indian citizens while seeking to identify and exclude non-citizens. Hence statement 1 is not correct. • The NPR is being prepared under provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. • It is mandatory for every “usual resident of India” to register in the NPR. Hence statement 2 is correct. • Only Assam will not be included (as per a notification by the Registrar General of India in August), given the recently completed NRC in that state • NPR will be conducted in conjunction with the house-listing phase, the first phase of the Census, by the Office of Registrar General of India (RGI) for Census 2021. • It is conducted at the local, sub-district, district, state and national levels. • The data for NPR was first collected in 2010 along with the house-listing phase of Census 2011. Hence statement 3 is correct. • In 2015, this data was updated by conducting door-to-door surveys.
Consider the following statements: 1. There is no limit to the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution. 2. Only the President can decide whether any matter forms a part of the basic structure of the Constitution Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• In 1973, the Supreme Court ruled in Kesavananda Bharati case that there is a basic structure of the Constitution and nobody—not even the Parliament (through amendment)—can violate the basic structure. The Court did two more things. First, it said that right to property (the disputed issue) was not part of basic structure and therefore could be suitably abridged. Secondly, the Court reserved to itself the right to decide whether various matters are part of the basic structure of the Constitution. This case is perhaps the best example of how judiciary uses its power to interpret the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank: 1. India is the second-largest shareholder of the bank. 2. Both USA and Japan are not its members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Recently, the former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) governor Urjit Patel has been appointed vice- president of the Beijing-based Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB). • The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank that aims to improve economic and social outcomes in Asia. • AIIB’s President and Board of Directors have approved 167 projects. • Project approval was guided by the Bank’s strategic goals and thematic priorities. • AIIB has 105 members and is open to accepting additional members. • AIIB is headquartered in Beijing, China. • The AIIB, launched in Beijing in 2015, has approved more loans for India than any other member of the bank. • The AIIB has funded 28 projects in India amounting to $6.7 billion. • Initially, 70-80% of the projects were co-financed but now that share of projects is standalone. • China is its biggest shareholder and India is the second-largest. Hence statement 1 is correct. • The U.S.A and Japan are not among its members. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following may be drawbacks of a democracy? 1. Leaders keep changing in a democracy which could lead to instability. 2. Democracy may lead to corruption as it is based on electoral competition. 3. Democracy increases the chances of rash or irresponsible decision-making. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• Democracy as a form of government only ensures that people take their own decisions. This does not guarantee that their decisions will be good. People can make mistakes. Involving the people in these decisions does lead to delays in decision making. It is also true that democracy leads to frequent changes in leadership. Sometimes this can set back big decisions and affect the government’s efficiency. • Democracy may lead to corruption for it is based on electoral competition due to more expenditure in elections, criminalisation of politics, etc. • Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. A democratic decision always involves many persons, discussions and meetings. When a number of people put their heads together, they are able to point out possible mistakes in any decision. This takes time. But there is a big advantage in taking time over important decisions. This reduces the chances of rash or irresponsible decisions. Thus democracy improves the quality of decision-making.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Fundamental Rights? 1. They are sacrosanct in nature and cannot be amended. 2. They are available against the actions of both State and private individuals. 3. They operate as checks on the tyranny of both executive and the Legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement 1 is not correct: Fundamental rights can be amended by constitution amendment till they do not violate the basic structure of the constitution and thus they are not sacrosanct. • Statement 2 is correct: are available against the actions of both State and private individuals. Few Rights like Abolition of Untouchability etc are available against private citizens also. • Statement 3 is correct: These rights limit the power of the Executive and legislature and thus prevent tyranny of the executive and legislature.
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties? 1. They can be used by the courts to determine the constitutionality of a law. 2. They can be enforced by the Parliament through legislation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
• Statement 1 is correct. Supreme Court in 1992 stated that Fundamental duties can be used in determining the constitutionality of any law. • Statement 2 is correct. Parliament is free to enforce Fundamental duties through suitable legislation. Many legislations like the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 make insult to national symbols a punishable act.
Which of the following is/are features of Indian secularism as adopted in the Constitution? 1. Religion is a personal matter and there is no interference by the state. 2. No citizen can be denied entry into any educational institute of the state on the grounds of religion or caste. 3. Every religious denomination has the right to establish and maintain charitable institutions without any limitation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement 1 is not correct: Though the word “Secular” was not added to the Preamble initially, the Indian Constitution has been secular from the beginning. It has Freedom of Religion (Art 25-28) and Protection of rights of minorities (Art 29-30) as Fundamental Rights. However, Indian secularism is different from the Western concept of secularism, where religion is treated as a personal matter and there is a strict separation between religion and State. In India, State can regulate economic, political, and secular activities related to religious practices, for example- throwing open Hindu religious institutions to all sections. • Statement 2 is correct: As per Art 29(2), no citizen can be denied entry into any educational institute maintained by the State only on the grounds of religion, race, caste, or any of them. • Statement 3 is not correct: The Freedom of Religion is not absolute. The Constitution provides for certain limitations on them. For example, every religious denomination has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. But this is subject to restrictions of public order, morality, and health.
Which of the following Supreme Court cases is/are related to disputes/conflicts between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy? 1. IR Coehlo Case, 2007 2. Golaknath case, 1967 3. Maneka Gandhi case, 1978 4. Minerva Mill Case, 1980 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• Cases related to dispute/conflict between Fundamental Right and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) -: o Champakam Dorairajan Case, 1951 - In this case, Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between FRs and DPSPs, FRs would prevail. It declared that DPSPs have to conform to and run as subsidiaries to the fundamental right. However, it also held that FRs could be amended by the Parliament through constitutional amendment acts. This led to the First, Fourth, and Seventeenth Amendment Act to implement some of the DPSPs. o Golak Nath case, 1967 - In this case, Supreme Court held that Parliament can’t take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature. Hence, the court held that Fundamental Rights can’t be amended for the implementation of DPSPs. This led to the enactment of the 24th Amendment Act and the 25 amendment Act which inserted a new Article 31C. o Kesavanand Bharti case, 1973 - In this case, Supreme Court declared the second provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution. This led to the enactment of the 42nd Amendment Act which gave legal primacy and supremacy to the DPSPs over FRs conferred by Articles 14, 19, and 21. o Minerva Mills case, 1980 - In this case, Supreme Court held the primacy of DPSPs over FRs as unconstitutional and invalid. It led to the subordination of DPSPs over FRs. However, FRs conferred by Articles 14 and 19 were accepted as subordinate to the DPSPs specified under Article 39(b) and (c). • The present position is that the FRs enjoy supremacy over DPSPs. However, Parliament can amend the FRs for implementing the DPSP, so long as the amendment doesn’t destroy of the basic feature of the constitution. • Maneka Gandhi case, 1978 - It deals with rights guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. Prior to this, there was ‘procedure prescribed by law’ which was replaced by ‘due process of law’ with respect to article 21 of the Constitution. • IR Coelho case in 2007—popularly known as the Ninth Schedule case—the Supreme Court took this further and argued that if the purpose of inserting a law into the Ninth Schedule was to undo a judgment of the Supreme Court, this could be examined by the courts. Also, the Supreme Court held that the laws placed under IX schedule after Kesavananda Bharati's judgment (24th April 1973 ) cannot be exempt from Judicial review.
Which of the following would fall under the definition of State as defined in Article 12 of the Constitution? 1. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation 2. Unique Identification Authority of India 3. NITI Aayog 4. RBI Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• The state has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights. • According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the 'State' under Article 12. • DMRC has equal equity participation from GOI and GNCTD. • RBI, UID Authority are statutory bodies. • NITI Aayog performs important public functions like recommending the poverty line. • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
The Weddell Sea, recently seen in the news, is located in which of the following regions?
Recently, a giant fish-breeding colony has been discovered in the Weddell Sea of the Antarctica region. A breeding colony of about 60 million icefish nest has been found recently by researchers in Antarctica’s southern Weddell Sea which is the largest icefish breeding colony on record. The researchers observed that the colony occupied an unusually warm patch of deep water, with temperatures up to about 35 degrees Fahrenheit which is practically warmer compared to other Antarctic waters. The warm deep currents guide the fish to the grounds. • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission, consider the following statements: 1. It is a constitutional body. 2. Its Chairman and members are appointed by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. • The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. They hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier. After their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the right to constitutional remedies provided under Article 32 of the constitution? 1. It is invoked to determine the constitutionality of any executive order or legislation if it directly infringes any of the fundamental rights. 2. The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in case of enforcement of fundamental rights. 3. It is a basic feature of the constitution and cannot be taken away even by a constitutional amendment. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• Statement 1 is correct: The purpose of Article 32 is to provide a guaranteed, effective, expeditious, inexpensive and summary remedy for the protection of the fundamental rights. Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non- fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on. In other words, the Supreme Court, under Article 32, cannot determine a question that does not involve Fundamental Rights. Article 32 cannot be invoked simply to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation unless it directly infringes any of the fundamental rights. • Statement 2 is not correct: In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under Article 226. • Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.
Which of the following are the reasons for creating Union Territories in India? 1. Cultural distinctiveness 2. Strategic importance 3. The interest of tribal people 4. Administrative consideration Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The Union Territories in India have been created for a variety of reasons. These are mentioned below: • Political and administrative consideration-Delhi and Chandigarh. • Cultural distinctiveness-Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu. • Strategic importance-Andaman and the Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. • Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people-Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh which later became states. • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following fall within the purview of Freedom of Speech and Expression as guaranteed under Article 19 of the Indian constitution? 1. Freedom of Silence 2. Right to Strike 3. Right to telecast 4. Right to know about government activities Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• Freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under Article 19(1) of the Indian constitution. It implies that every citizen has the right to express his views, opinions, belief, and convictions. The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes the following -: • Right to propagate one's views as well as views of others. • Freedom of press • Freedom of Commercial advertisements • Right against tapping of telephonic conversation • Right to telecast • Freedom of silence • Right to know about government activities • Right against the imposition of pre-censorship • Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike
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