Consider the following statements with respect to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): 1. It is a statutory body constituted under the Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986. 2. It has been designated as the agency to monitor provisions of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. The Commission works under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Hence statement 1 is not correct. • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) emphasizes the principle of universality and inviolability of child rights and recognizes the tone of urgency in all the child-related policies of the country. For the Commission, the protection of all children in the 0 to 18 years age group is of equal importance. • The Commission shall perform the following functions, namely: o Examine and review the safeguards provided by any law for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation. o Present to the central government, reports upon working of those safeguards; o Inquire into violation of child rights o Examine all factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of children affected by terrorism, communal violence, riots, o Look into matters relating to children in need of special care and protection etc. • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has been designated as the agency to monitor provisions of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act. Under the Act, NCPCR can investigate complaints and have the powers of a civil court in trying cases. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding PARAKH Portal (Programme): 1. It will conduct assessments for both students and teachers at schools. 2. It is launched by the All India Council for Technological Education (AICTE). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Statement 1 is correct: Student learning assessment (PARAKH) will conduct assessment of students and faculty members of higher education institutes and schools. • Statement 2 is correct: It is launched by the All India Council for Technological Education (AICTE). AICTE is the statutory body and national level apex advisory body to conduct a survey on the facilities available for technical education and to promote development in the country in a coordinated and integrated manner.
Consider the following statements with reference to the idea of liberalism in the context of the Indian Constitution: 1. Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the rights of the community. 2. Reservations for SC/ST community in the constitution are an example of Indian liberalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Statement 1 is not correct: Indian liberalism is different from classical or western liberalism. Classical liberalism is more concerned with individual freedom. While in India, an individual identifies himself with the community to which he/she belongs. So Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the demands of social justice and community values. • Statement 2 is correct: The reservation to deprived classes to meet their demands for social justice signifies the idea of Indian liberalism.
Which of the following issues can be taken up by the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? 1. Issues of manual scavenging 2. Problems faced by Notified and Denotified Tribes 3. Issues related to the right to health Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is a Statutory public body constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. • The various human rights issues taken up by the Commission are as follows : o Abolition of Bonded Labour o Issues Concerning Right to Food o Protocols to the Convention on the Rights of the Child o Abolition of Child Labour o Trafficking in Women and Children o Maternal Anemia and Human Rights o Combating Sexual Harassment of Women at the Work Place o Abolition of Manual Scavenging o Dalits issues including Atrocities perpetrated on them o Problems faced by Denotified and Nomadic Tribes. o Rights of the Disabled Persons o Issues related to Right to Health. o Rights of persons affected by HIV / AIDS • Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
World Employment and Social Outlook report: Trends 2022 was published by:
World Employment and Social Outlook is the flagship report of International Labour Organisation (ILO). World Employment and Social Outlook: Trends 2022 warns of a slow and uncertain recovery, as the pandemic continues to have a significant impact on global labour markets. It examines the impacts of the crisis on global and regional trends in employment, unemployment and labour force participation, as well as on job quality, informal employment and working poverty. It also offers an extensive analysis of trends in temporary employment both before and during the COVID-19 crisis. This year’s report provides a comprehensive assessment of how the labour market recovery has unfolded across the world in response to different country measures to tackle the pandemic. It analyses global patterns, regional differences and outcomes across economic sectors and groups of workers. It also presents projections for the expected labour market recovery. • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to Election Commission, consider the following statements: 1. Conditions of office and tenure of office are provided under Article 324. 2. Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) exercises veto power over the matters discussed in Election Commission. 3. CEC does not hold office during pleasure of President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Statement 1 is not correct: The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the President. Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission of India is vested with the power of superintendence, direction, and control of conducting the elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. • Statement 2 is not correct: In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief election commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by the majority. • Statement 3 is correct: He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with the special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
Consider the following: 1. President’s Rule 2. National Emergency 3. Martial Rule Which of the above special circumstances has/have an effect on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?
• President's rule has no effect on Fundamental Rights whereas National Emergency and Martial Rule have. When a National Emergency is declared, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended and this suspension continues till the end of the emergency.
Which of the following Directive Principles was added by the 42nd Constitution amendment? 1. To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children. 2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. 3. To minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities. 4. To promote the development of the Hindi language. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Constitution Amendment Directive Principles added/changed 42nd, 1976 • To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39) • To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A) • To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A) • To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39)To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A). 44th, 1978 • The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations (Article 38(2)) 97th, 2011 • The State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies. (Article 43-B) 86th, 2002 • The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. (The subject of article 45 changed)
Who among the following do not hold office during the pleasure of the President? 1. Attorney General 2. Comptroller and Auditor General 3. Members of Union Public Service Commission 4. Chief Election Commissioner Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• The doctrine of Pleasure of President has been borrowed from the British. In England, The doctrine of pleasure means that the Crown has the power to terminate the services of a civil servant at any time they want without giving any notice of termination to the servant. Thus the civil servants work at the pleasure of the Crown which can remove them at any time. This doctrine is based on the concept of public policy and whenever the Crown feels that a civil servant should be removed from his office because keeping him will be against public policy, the Crown can remove such servant. • India has adopted this provision though there exist some modifications in case of the civil servants. (Article 310) • The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. • CAG holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with a special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office until the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him. • The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances: o If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt) o If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or o If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. o In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehavior. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the inquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the President can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advice tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. Thus, Members/Chairman do not hold his office until the pleasure of the president, though they are appointed by him. • The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with a special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office until the pleasure of the President, though he is appointed by him.
Consider the following statements with regard to the Padma awards: 1. A Padma awardee can be given a higher award only after five years of the conferment of the earlier award. 2. The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. 3. There is a provision for seeking the written consent of the recipient before the announcement of the award. Which of the statements given above are correct?
30.A • What are Padma awards? o They are the highest civilian honor of India after the Bharat Ratna. o Instituted in 1954 along with Bharat Ratna. o The awards are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher-order), and Padma Shri (distinguished service). o The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved. • Limitations and exceptions: o The awardees do not get any cash reward but a certificate signed by the President apart from a medallion which they can wear at public and government functions. o The awards are, however, not a conferment of title, and the awardees are expected to not use them as prefixes or suffixes to their names. o A Padma awardee can be given a higher award only after five years of the conferment of the earlier award. Hence statement 1 is correct. o Not more than 120 awards can be given in a year but this does not include posthumous awards or awards given to NRIs and foreigners. • Eligibility: o All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex are eligible for these awards. However, government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these awards. o The award is given for “special services” and not just for “long service”. “It should not be merely excellence in a particular field, but the criteria have to be ‘excellence plus’. • Who nominates the awardees? o Any citizen of India can nominate a potential recipient. o One can even nominate one’s own self. o All nominations are to be done online where a form is to be filled along with details of the person or the organization being nominated. o An 800-word essay detailing the work done by the potential awardee is also to be submitted for the nomination to be considered. • Who selects the awardees? o All nominations received for Padma awards are placed before the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. o The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary and includes Home Secretary, Secretary to the President, and four to six eminent persons as members. Hence statement 2 is correct. o The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President of India for approval. • Is the recipient’s consent sought? o There is no provision for seeking a written or formal consent of the recipient before the announcement of the award. However, before the announcement, every recipient receives a call from the Ministry of Home Affairs informing him or her about the selection. In case the recipient expresses a desire to be excluded from the award list, the name is removed. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following pairs: Constitutional Provision Country adopted from 1. Fundamental Rights : France 2. Directive Principles of State Policy : Ireland 3. Cabinet form of government : Britain Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
• The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the constitutions of various other countries as well as from the Government of India Act of 1935. Dr B R Ambedkar proudly acclaimed that the Constitution of India has been framed after ‘ransacking all the known Constitutions of the World’. • The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935. The philosophical part of the Constitution (the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy) derive their inspiration from the American and Irish Constitutions respectively. The political part of the Constitution (the principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the executive and the legislature) have been largely drawn from the British Constitution. • The other provisions of the Constitution have been drawn from the constitutions of Canada, Australia, Germany, USSR (now Russia), France, South Africa, Japan, and so on. • However, the criticism that the Indian Constitution is a ‘borrowed Constitution’, a ‘patchwork’ and contains nothing new and original is unfair and illogical. This is because, the framers of the Constitution made necessary modifications in the features borrowed from other constitutions for their suitability to the Indian conditions, at the same time avoiding their faults.
With reference to State Election Commission, consider the following statements: 1. It has been empowered to conduct elections to panchayats through 73rd Constitutional amendment. 2. The functions of delimitation, reservation and rotation of Panchayats seats is vested in State Election Commission. 3. State Election Commission submits its annual report to the Election Commission of India and to the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Statement 1 is correct: State Election Commissions is entrusted to conduct elections to Panchayats through 73rd and urban local bodies through 74th Constitutional amendment acts. • Statement 2 is correct: The functions of delimitation, reservation and rotation of Panchayats seats is vested in State Election Commission. As per the recommendations of National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC), the functions of delimitation, reservation and rotation of seats should be vested in a Delimitation Commission and not in the State Election Commission. • Statement 3 is not correct: At present, there is no clear-cut provision regarding the submission of reports by State Election Commission. NCRWC also recommended that the State Election Commission should submit its annual or special reports to the Election Commission of India and to the Governor.
Consider the following pairs: Commission/Body Falls under 1. National Commission for Minorities : Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment 2. National Commission for Women : Ministry of Women and Child Development 3. National Commission for STs : Ministry of Tribal Affairs Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
• National Commission for Minorities falls under the Minorities Ministry of Minority Affairs. • National Commission for Women falls under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. • National Commission for STs falls under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. • Hence, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statements: 1. It is a quasi-judicial body. 2. The members hold office for five years or till 65 years of age. 3. The members are eligible for reappointment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission. It is a quasi judicial body. The Finance Commission shall have all powers of civil court under Code of Civil Procedure (1908) in matters of summoning & enforcing attendance and requisitioning any public record from any court of office. Also Finance Commission shall be deemed to be a civil court for purposes of sections 480 and 482 of the CrPC provided under Finance Commission Act • It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. • Statement 2 is not correct: The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. They hold office for such period as specified by the President in his order. • Statement 3 is correct: They are eligible for reappointment.
Recently Airtel Payments Bank was awarded scheduled bank status by the RBI. In this context consider the following statements: 1. Every Scheduled bank is eligible to be a member of a clearinghouse. 2. Payments banks can provide debit and ATM cards. 3. Payment bank's deposit limit is Rs 100,000 per person. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• What is a Scheduled Bank? o Scheduled Banks in India refer to those banks which have been included in the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. o Every Scheduled bank enjoys two types of principal facilities: It becomes eligible for debts/loans at the bank rate from the RBI; and, it automatically acquires the membership of clearinghouse. Hence, statement 1 is correct. • What are Payments bank? o Payment banks were established to promote financial inclusion by offering; ‘modest savings accounts and payments/remittance services to migratory labor workforce, low-income households, small enterprises, other unorganized sector entities, and other users.’ o These banks can accept a restricted deposit, which is now capped at Rs 200,000 per person but could be raised in the future. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. o These banks are unable to provide loans or credit cards. Banks of this type can handle both current and savings accounts. o Payments banks can provide ATM and debit cards, as well as online and mobile banking. Hence, statement 2 is correct.