Which of the following principles were included in the 'Objectives Resolution passed by the Constituent Assembly? 1. Powers and authority of independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people. 2. Minorities and Other backward classes will be provided adequate safeguards. 3. India will make a full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• The following were included in the Objectives Resolution as passed by the Constituent Assembly- India is an independent, sovereign, republic; All powers and authority of independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people. • Summary of Objectives resolution- o India is an independent, sovereign, republic; o India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other parts outside British India and Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union; o Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union; o All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people; o All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action - subject to law and public morality; o The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards; o The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations; o The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and welfare of mankind.
'Bhungloti', which was recently in news is:
Bhungloti is a creeper (plants that grows close to ground and have horizontal growth) that in combination with the pith of the roots of a jackfruit tree yields a saffron dye. It is traditionally used in giving colour to the robes of the Buddhist monks. The people of villages in the vicinity converged to form Chala Village Sanctuary Conservation Society that is a 173-hectare reserve forest under the Sivasagar Forest Division, Assam. The Buddhist in the area have raised the concerns regarding the near- extinction of bhungloti and called a movement for conserving the adjoining Chala Reserve Forest to preserve the bhungloti. The Chala Reserve Forest is about 100 metres above sea level and it houses a few orchids that are usually found in higher altitudes.
Members of the Constituent Assembly of India were: 1. Directly elected 2. Indirectly elected 3. Nominated Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• The members from the princely stats were nominated and members from that of British Provinces were elected indirectly from the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, but not directly by the people.
Indian Constitution is called a living document because 1. Indian Constitution is open to changes as per the changing needs of society. 2. The constitution provides enough flexibility of interpretation for both the political class and the Judiciary. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• Statement 1 is correct. Indian constitution is a sacred document but not a static one. It allows changes if the demand is made by society. After independence, several amendments/provisions and laws were made as the needs of the society. • Statement 2 is correct. Ever since the constitution came into being, the political class and the judiciary subjected it to multiple interpretations. Judicial pronouncements/judgments have led to the establishment of several doctrines which was not mentioned in the original constitution. Eg - Basic Structure Doctrine.
With reference to UPSC, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is mandated with the classification of services and cadre management of selected candidates. 2. It presents its annual performance report to the Parliament. 3. Its jurisdiction can be extended by an act made by the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• Statement 1 is not correct: It is concerned with the recruitment to the all-India services and Central services—group A and group B and advises the government, when consulted, on promotion and disciplinary matters. It is not concerned with the classification of services, pay and service conditions, cadre management, training, and so on which is managed by the Department of Personnel and Training of government of India. • Statement 2 is not correct: The UPSC presents, annually, to the president a report on its performance. The President places this report before both the Houses of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the cases where the advice of the Commission was not accepted and the reasons for such non- acceptance. • Statement 3 is correct: The additional functions relating to the services of the Union can be conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of the UPSC. Hence the jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an Act made by the Parliament.
According to the Preamble of the Constitution, as adopted by the Constituent Assembly, which of the following adjectives was/were used to define the Indian Republic? 1. Socialist 2. Sovereign 3. Secular 4. Democratic Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• The Preamble of the Constitution defines the Indian Republic as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic. Of these, Sovereign and Democratic were part of the Preamble adopted by the Constituent Assembly. • Socialists and Secular were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Also, the word 'integrity' was added by the same act.
With reference to Joint Public Service Commission (JPSC), consider the following statements: 1. It can be created by President on the request of state legislatures concerned. 2. Its members holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. 3. It presents its annual report to the President. Which of the statement given above are not correct?
• Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. • Statement 2 is correct: The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. • Statement 3 is not correct: A JPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state governors. Each governor places the report before the state legislature.
With reference to the Solicitor General of India, consider the following statements: 1. The office of the Solicitor General of India is mentioned in the Indian Constitution. 2. The role of the Solicitor General is to assist the Attorney General in the fulfillment of his official responsibilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
In addition to the Attorney General, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the Solicitor General of India and additional Solicitor General of India. They assist the Attorney General in the fulfillment of his official responsibilities. It should be noted here that only the office of the Attorney General is created by the Constitution. In other words, Article 76 does not mention about the Solicitor General and additional Solicitor General.
Who among the following first put forward the idea of Constituent Assembly for India?
It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radicaldemocratism. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise’.
Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO): 1. It is committed to the principle that an attack against one of its members is considered as an attack against all. 2. Its headquarter is in Brussels, Belgium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Recently, Russia has stationed about 100,000 troops near its border with Ukraine. • The North Atlantic Treaty Organization also called the North Atlantic Alliance, is an intergovernmental military alliance between 27 European countries, 2 North American countries, and 1 Eurasian country. • The organization implements the North Atlantic Treaty that was signed on 4 April 1949. • Its headquarters is located in Brussels, Belgium. Hence statement 2 is correct. • NATO is committed to the principle that an attack against one or several of its members is considered as an attack against all. Hence statement 1 is correct • This is the principle of collective defense, which is enshrined in Article 5 of the Washington Treaty. • So far, Article 5 has been invoked once - in response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks in the United States in 2001.
Consider the following statements: 1. The conversion of the federal structure of India into a unitary one during an emergency has been borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany. 2. The suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Both the statements are not correct. • During an emergency, the Central Government becomes all-powerful and the states go into total control of the center. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. This kind of transformation of the political system from federal (during normal times) to unitary (during an emergency) is not borrowed from any Constitution of the world. • The feature of suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency has been borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany and hence, not a unique feature of the Indian Constitution.
Consider the following statements with regard to Parliament's power to reorganize the states: 1. Any bill contemplating the changes can be introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. 2. Under article 3, the Parliament’s power to diminish the areas of a state includes the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state. 3. Any bill aiming to reorganize the states shall be passed in the parliament by a special majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Statement 1 is correct. Any bill contemplating the changes with regard to the reorganization of states can be introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. • Statement 2 is not correct. Under article 3 of the Constitution, the parliament's power to diminish the areas of a state does not include the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. • Statement 3 is not correct. Any bill aiming to reorganize the states shall be passed in the parliament by a simple majority.
With reference to Advocate General of State, consider the following statements: 1. He is appointed by Governor. 2. He must be at least 35 years of age to be appointed as Advocate General of State. 3. His remuneration is decided by Governor. Which of the statements given above are correct?
• Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the Advocate General for the states. He is the highest law officer in the state. The advocate general is appointed by the governor. • Statement 2 is not correct: Eligibility conditions for Advocate General does not include minimum age limits. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and must have held a judicial office for ten years or been an advocate of a high court for ten years. • Statement 3 is correct: The remuneration of the Advocate General is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the Governor may determine.
Which of the following writs can be issued against the private individual as well as a public authority? 1. Habeas Corpus 2. Mandamus 3. Prohibition Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against private individuals as well as a public authority. While other writs like Mandamus, Prohibition, and Certiorari can be issued only against public authorities.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 33 of the Indian Constitution: 1. The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on the state legislatures. 2. The laws made under Article 33 cannot be challenged in any court for violation of any of the fundamental rights. 3. Laws made under Article 33 cover only combatant employees and officers of armed forces. Which of the statements given above are correct?
• Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous forces. The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among them. The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures. Hence statement 1 is correct. • Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights. Hence statement 2 is correct. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Army Act (1950), the Navy Act (1950), the Air Force Act (1950), the Police Forces (Restriction ofRights) Act, 1966, the Border Security Force Act and so on. These impose restrictions on their freedom of speech, right to form associations, right to be members of trade unions or political associations, right to communicate with the press, right to attend public meetings or demonstrations, etc. • The expression ‘members of the armed forces’ also covers such employees of the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. 2. He holds office for a period of five years or upto the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. 3. The Union Finance minister can represent the CAG in Parliament during his absence. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels—the Centre and the state. Hence, statement 1 is correct. • He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. • No minister can represent the CAG in Parliament (both Houses) and no minister can be called upon to take any responsibility for any actions done by him. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following situations can be considered 'proper' for the imposition of President’s Rule in a state? 1. Maladministration in the state 2. A government is deliberately acting against the Constitution. 3. A constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state government Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• Based on the report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre–State Relations (1988), the Supreme Court in Bommai case (1994) enlisted the situations where the exercise of power under Article 356 could be proper or improper. • The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be proper in the following situations: o Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, ‘Hung Assembly’. o Where the party having a majority in the assembly declines to form a ministry and the governor cannot find a coalition ministry commanding a majority in the assembly. o Where a ministry resigns after its defeat in the assembly and no other party is willing or able to form a ministry commanding a majority in the assembly. o Where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state government. o Internal subversion where, for example, a government is deliberately acting against the Constitution and the law or is fomenting a violent revolt. o Physical breakdown where the government wilfully refuses to discharge its constitutional obligations endangering the security of the state. • The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations: o Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative ministry. o Where the governor makes his own assessment of the support of a ministry in the assembly and recommends imposition of President’s Rule without allowing the ministry to prove its majority on the floor of the Assembly. o Where the ruling party enjoying majority support in the assembly has suffered a massive defeat in the general elections to the Lok Sabha such as in 1977 and 1980. o Internal disturbances not amounting to internal subversion or physical breakdown o Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state. o Where the state government is not given prior warning to rectify itself except in case of extreme urgency leading to disastrous consequences. o Where the power is used to sort out intra-party problems of the ruling party, or for a purpose extraneous or irrelevant to the one for which it has been conferred by the Constitution.
Which of the following provisions were added to the Constitution through Constitutional amendments? 1. The President has to act in accordance with the advice of Council of Ministers. 2. All citizens who are not less than 18 years old are entitled to vote in elections of Lok Sabha. 3. The State can make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advice the President who shall act in accordance with such advice”, was added as Art 74(1) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. • The minimum age for voting was reduced to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act. • “The State can make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes and citizens of Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes”, was added as Art 15(4) by the First Constitutional Amendment Act. • Hence, all of the above provisions were added through Constitutional Amendments.
Recently, astronomers detected a rare giant eruption from Ultra-Long Period Magnetar in space. In this context, consider the following statements about the Ultra-Long Period Magnetar: 1. These are high-energy neutron stars that possess intense magnetic fields. 2. The emission of magnetars is highly linearly polarized, bright, and is visible across a broad frequency range Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• An international group of astronomers has recently obtained the first clues about extremely rare giant eruptions which is known as Ultra-Long Period Magnetar (ULP) that emerged from a magnetar located 13 million light years away. Magnetars are a type of isolated neutron stars that possess the most intense magnetic fields. They experience violent eruptions or intense bursts in the form of transient X-ray pulses which are several orders higher than that of the Sun. Even inactive magnetars can be thousands of times more luminous than the Sun. • Statement 1 is correct: It is a type of slowly spinning neutron star that has been predicted to exist theoretically. According to the scientists involved in the research, the single event released energy equivalent to what the Sun would radiate in one lakh years. • Statement 2 is correct: The emission is highly linearly polarized, bright, persists for 30–60 s on each occurrence and is visible across a broad frequency range. At times, the pulses comprise short-duration (<0.5 s) bursts; at others, a smoother profile is observed. These profiles evolve on timescales of hours.
The Directive Principles of State policy have been useful to India because: 1. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. 2. They help courts in exercising judicial review. 3. They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• The Directive Principles, although confer no legal rights and creates no legal remedies, are significant and useful in the following ways: o They are like an 'Instrument of Instructions' or general recommendations addressed to all authorities in the Indian Union. They remind them of the basic principles of the new social and economic order, which the Constitution aims at the building. o They have served as useful beacon-lights to the courts. They have helped the courts in exercising their power of judicial review, that is, the power to determine the constitutional validity of a law. o They form the dominating background to all State action, legislative or executive, and also a guide to the courts in some respects. o They amplify the Preamble, which solemnly resolves to secure to all citizens of India justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. o They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in political, economic, and social spheres in spite of the changes of the party in power. o They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. o Their implementation creates a favorable atmosphere for the full and proper enjoyment of the fundamental rights of the citizens. Political democracy, without economic democracy, has no meaning. o They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government. The Opposition can blame the ruling party on the ground that its activities are opposed to the Directives. o They serve as a crucial test for the performance of the government. The people can examine the policies and programs of the government in light of these constitutional declarations.
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